AAI Junior Assistant Recruitment 2025 Mock Test

AAI Junior Assistant Recruitment 2025 Mock Test 1 covering 100 MCQs on General Intelligence, General Awareness, English Language and Quantitative Aptitude. General Intelligence (MCQs 1 to 25), General Awareness (MCQs 26 to 50), English Language (MCQs 51 to 75) and Quantitative Aptitude (MCQs 76 to 100). Attempt this free mock test now.

AAI Junior Assistant Recruitment 2025 Mock Test

AAI Junior Assistant Recruitment 2025 Mock Test – Attempt Now!

Question 1: Architect:Building :: Sculptor:?

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Correct Answer: B. Statue. An architect designs and oversees the construction of a building, while a sculptor creates a statue.

Question 2: Choose the pair that best represents a similar relationship to “Genuine:Authentic”.

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Correct Answer: C. Fake:Counterfeit. “Genuine” and “Authentic” are synonyms, just like “Fake” and “Counterfeit”.

Question 3: If ‘TABLE’ is coded as ‘UBCMF’, how is ‘CHAIR’ coded?

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Correct Answer: A. DIBJS. The coding pattern is to shift each letter to the next letter in the alphabet (T+1=U, A+1=B, B+1=C, L+1=M, E+1=F). Applying the same to ‘CHAIR’ gives C+1=D, H+1=I, A+1=B, I+1=J, R+1=S.

Question 4: Pointing to a man, a woman said, “He is the only son of my mother’s father.” How is the man related to the woman?

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Correct Answer: B. Uncle. The woman’s mother’s father is the woman’s maternal grandfather. His only son is the woman’s maternal uncle.

Question 5: A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that will complete the series: 3, 8, 15, 24, ?

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Correct Answer: C. 35. The pattern in the series is n² – 1, where n starts from 2 (2²-1=3, 3²-1=8, 4²-1=15, 5²-1=24, 6²-1=35).

Question 6: Five students A, B, C, D, and E are sitting on a bench. A is to the left of B, but on the right of C. D is to the right of B, and E is the farthest right. Who is sitting in the middle?

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Correct Answer: B. B. The arrangement is C – A – B – D – E. Therefore, B is sitting in the middle.

Question 7: Which of the following words cannot be formed from the letters of the word ‘INTERNATIONAL’?

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Correct Answer: D. ANNUAL. The word ‘ANNUAL’ requires two ‘A’s, but the word ‘INTERNATIONAL’ has only one ‘A’.

Question 8: If 4 × 5 = 20, 7 × 3 = 21, then what is the value of 9 × 2?

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Correct Answer: B. 18. The pattern is simply the product of the two numbers. 4 × 5 = 20, 7 × 3 = 21, and therefore, 9 × 2 = 18.

Question 9: Choose the alternative that shows a similar relationship as given: “Crowd : People”.

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Correct Answer: D. All of the above. A crowd is a collection of people, similarly, a forest is a collection of trees, an army is a collection of soldiers, and a class is a collection of students.

Question 10: You are the manager of a team, and two of your team members are constantly in conflict, affecting team productivity. What would be the most effective first step to resolve this situation?

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Correct Answer: C. Meet with each individual separately to understand their perspective. Understanding the root causes of the conflict from each person’s viewpoint is crucial before taking any resolution steps.

Question 11: Which of the following has the same relationship as “Watch : Time”?

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Correct Answer: D. Compass : Direction. A watch measures time, and a compass indicates direction.

Question 12: Find the odd one out:

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Correct Answer: B. Flute. A guitar, violin, and sitar are stringed instruments, while a flute is a wind instrument.

Question 13: Complete the series: B2D, F6H, J12L, N20P, ?

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Correct Answer: B. R30T. The pattern in the letters is +4 for the first and third letters (B+4=F, F+4=J, J+4=N, N+4=R; D+4=H, H+4=L, L+4=P, P+4=T). The pattern in the numbers is +4, +6, +8, +10 (2+4=6, 6+6=12, 12+8=20, 20+10=30).

Question 14: If ‘SILVER’ is coded as ‘RHKUDQ’, what is the code for ‘GOLDEN’?

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Correct Answer: A. FNLCMD. The coding pattern is to shift each letter one position backward in the alphabet (S-1=R, I-1=H, L-1=K, V-1=U, E-1=D, R-1=Q). Applying this to ‘GOLDEN’ gives G-1=F, O-1=N, L-1=K, D-1=C, E-1=D, N-1=M.

Question 15: There are five books A, B, C, D, and E placed on a table. If A is placed below C, D is placed above E, and B is placed below A, and C is placed above D, then which book is at the bottom?

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Correct Answer: B. B. The order from top to bottom is C – D – E – A – B. Therefore, B is at the bottom.

Question 16: Choose the pair that has a similar relationship to “Doctor : Diagnosis”.

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Correct Answer: B. Lawyer : Argument. A doctor’s primary role in addressing a health issue is diagnosis, and a lawyer’s primary role in a legal issue is to present an argument.

Question 17: Find the number that does NOT belong to the series: 2, 6, 18, 54, 160.

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Correct Answer: D. 160. The series follows the pattern of multiplying by 3 (2 × 3 = 6, 6 × 3 = 18, 18 × 3 = 54). The next number should be 54 × 3 = 162, not 160.

Question 18: Two statements are given, followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. Consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Decide which of the conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.

Statements: Some books are pens. All pens are pencils.

Conclusions: I. Some books are pencils. II. No book is a pencil.

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Correct Answer: A. Only conclusion I follows. Since some books are pens, and all pens are pencils, it logically follows that some books are pencils. Conclusion II contradicts this.

Question 19: If North becomes South-East and South becomes North-West, what will West become?

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Correct Answer: A. North-East. North shifts by 135 degrees clockwise to become South-East. Applying the same shift to West (135 degrees clockwise) will result in North-East.

Question 20: How many meaningful English words can be formed using the letters of the word ‘CARE’, using each letter only once?

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Correct Answer: C. 3. The meaningful words that can be formed are CARE, RACE, and ACRE.

Question 21: A cube has six faces painted with different colors. The face opposite red is blue. The face opposite green is white. The face opposite yellow is orange. If the green face is adjacent to the red face, which of the following statements must be true?

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Correct Answer: A. The white face is adjacent to the blue face. We know that Red-Blue, Green-White, and Yellow-Orange are opposite pairs. If Green is adjacent to Red, then the face opposite Green (White) must be adjacent to the face opposite Red (Blue).

Question 22: Choose the option that best represents the water image of the word “NUMERAL”.

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Correct Answer: C. NՈWƎBVT. In a water image, the top and bottom parts of the letters are inverted, while the left and right parts remain the same.

Question 23: A person walks 10 meters towards the East, then turns South and walks 10 meters. Then he turns West and walks 25 meters. Finally, he turns North and walks 10 meters. What is the shortest distance between his starting point and his final position?

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Correct Answer: C. 15 meters. The person moves 10m East, 10m South, 25m West, and 10m North. The North and South movements cancel each other out. The net movement is 10m East and 25m West, resulting in a net displacement of 15m towards the West from the starting point. The shortest distance is therefore 15 meters.

Question 24: Consider the following sequence of numbers: 8, 6, 9, 23, 87, ?. What is the next number in the sequence?

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Correct Answer: D. 429. The pattern is: ×1 – 2, ×2 – 3, ×3 – 4, ×4 – 5, ×5 – 6.

8 × 1 – 2 = 6

6 × 2 – 3 = 9

9 × 3 – 4 = 23

23 × 4 – 5 = 87

87 × 5 – 6 = 435 – 6 = 429

Question 25: Five friends P, Q, R, S, and T are sitting around a circular table facing the center. P is to the immediate left of T. Q is sitting opposite to P. R is sitting between P and Q. Who is to the immediate right of S?

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Correct Answer: B. Q. Based on the information:

P is to the immediate left of T: … T P …

Q is sitting opposite to P: Q … P …

R is sitting between P and Q: Q R P … Combining these around the circular table: Q – R – P – T – S (clockwise or counter-clockwise). Therefore, Q is to the immediate right of S.

Question 26: The term “Sovereign Green Bonds” has been in the news recently. Which of the following statements best describes their primary purpose?

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Correct Answer: C. To mobilize funds for environmentally friendly projects and promote green infrastructure. Sovereign Green Bonds are issued by governments to finance projects with positive environmental impacts.

Question 27: Operation ‘Kaveri’, recently seen in the news, was related to the evacuation of Indian citizens from which country?

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Correct Answer: B. Sudan. Operation Kaveri was launched by the Indian government to evacuate Indian nationals stranded in Sudan due to the internal conflict.

Question 28: The ‘Digital India Act’, which is in the process of being drafted, aims to replace which existing legislation?

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Correct Answer: A. Information Technology Act, 2000. The Digital India Act is envisioned as a modern framework to regulate the digital space in India.

Question 29: Which country recently assumed the presidency of the G20 after India?

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Correct Answer: B. Brazil. India’s presidency of the G20 concluded on November 30, 2023, and Brazil assumed the presidency on December 1, 2023. South Africa assumed the presidency of the G20 on December 1, 2024, and will hold it until November 30, 2025

Question 30: The ‘Artemis Program’ is an initiative of which space agency?

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Correct Answer: B. NASA. The Artemis Program is a U.S.-led international effort to return humans to the Moon and establish a sustainable lunar presence.

Question 31: The Jallianwala Bagh massacre took place in which Indian city?

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Correct Answer: B. Amritsar. The Jallianwala Bagh massacre occurred on April 13, 1919, in Amritsar, Punjab.

Question 32: Who was the president of the Indian National Congress during the Dandi March?

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Correct Answer: D. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad was the president of the Indian National Congress in 1930 when the Dandi March took place. The Dandi March, also known as the Salt Satyagraha, occurred in March-April 1930.

Question 33: The ‘Quit India’ movement was launched in which year?

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Correct Answer: B. 1942. The Quit India Movement was launched in August 1942 during the Bombay session of the All-India Congress Committee.

Question 34: The Himalayas are an example of which type of mountains?

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Correct Answer: C. Fold Mountains. The Himalayas were formed by the collision of the Indo-Australian and Eurasian tectonic plates.

Question 35: The Great Barrier Reef is located off the coast of which country?

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Correct Answer: B. Australia. The Great Barrier Reef is the world’s largest coral reef system located in the Coral Sea, off the coast of Queensland, Australia.

Question 36: The ‘Ring of Fire’ is primarily associated with which geographical phenomenon?

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Correct Answer: B. Volcanic Activity and Earthquakes. The Ring of Fire is a major area in the basin of the Pacific Ocean where many earthquakes and volcanic eruptions occur.

Question 37: Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the abolition of untouchability?

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Correct Answer: B. Article 17. Article 17 of the Indian Constitution abolishes untouchability and its practice in any form.

Question 38: The concept of ‘judicial review’ in the Indian Constitution has been borrowed from the constitution of which country?

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Correct Answer: B. United States of America. Judicial review is the power of the judiciary to review and determine the validity of laws passed by the legislature and executive actions.

Question 39: How many fundamental duties are listed in the Indian Constitution?

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Correct Answer: B. 11. Initially, there were 10 fundamental duties, which were increased to 11 by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.

Question 40: The Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India is an example of which type of tax?

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Correct Answer: B. Indirect Tax. GST is a multi-stage, destination-based tax levied on every value addition.

Question 41: The term ‘demographic dividend’ refers to:

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Correct Answer: C. The economic growth potential resulting from a shift in a population’s age structure, particularly when the share of the working-age population is larger than the non-working-age share. This situation can lead to higher productivity and economic growth.

Question 42: Which of the following is a greenhouse gas?

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Correct Answer: C. Carbon Dioxide. Greenhouse gases trap heat in the Earth’s atmosphere, contributing to global warming.

Question 43: The deficiency of which vitamin can lead to night blindness?

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Correct Answer: A. Vitamin A. Night blindness, also known as nyctalopia, is a condition in which it is difficult or impossible to see in relatively low light.

Question 44: What is the chemical symbol for water?

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Correct Answer: C. H2O. Water is a chemical substance with the chemical formula H₂O: one molecule of water has two hydrogen atoms covalently bonded to a single oxygen atom.

Question 45: The Thomas Cup is associated with which sport?

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Correct Answer: C. Badminton. The Thomas Cup is a biennial international badminton championship contested by the men’s national teams of member associations of Badminton World Federation (BWF).

Question 46: Who is the first Indian woman to win a medal at the Olympic Games?

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Correct Answer: C. Karnam Malleswari. Karnam Malleswari won a bronze medal in weightlifting at the 2000 Sydney Olympics.

Question 47: ‘Kathakali’ is a classical dance form originating from which Indian state?

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Correct Answer: B. Kerala. Kathakali is a major form of classical Indian dance that originated in the state of Kerala.

Question 48: The ‘Hornbill Festival’ is primarily celebrated in which Indian state?

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Correct Answer: C. Nagaland. The Hornbill Festival is a celebration held every year from 1 to 10 December in Nagaland.

Question 49: The ‘Ajanta Caves’, known for their murals and sculptures, are located in which Indian state?

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Correct Answer: A. Maharashtra. The Ajanta Caves are Buddhist cave monuments dating back to ancient India, containing rich painted murals and sculptures.

Question 50: Which of the following musical instruments is a stringed instrument?

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Correct Answer: C. Sitar. The Sitar is a plucked stringed instrument, originating from the Indian subcontinent.

Question 51: Choose the synonym for the word “ephemeral.”

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Correct Answer: B. Transient. Ephemeral means lasting for a very short time.

Question 52: Identify the grammatical error in the following sentence: “Neither the students nor the teacher were present in the classroom.”

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Correct Answer: C. were. The verb should agree with the noun closer to it, which is “the teacher” (singular). Therefore, it should be “was present.”

Question 53: Select the correctly punctuated sentence.

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Correct Answer: B. The book, which I borrowed yesterday, is quite interesting. The non-essential clause “which I borrowed yesterday” should be set off by commas.

Question 54: What is the antonym of “benevolent”?

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Correct Answer: C. Malevolent. Benevolent means well-meaning and kindly, while malevolent means having or showing a wish to do evil to others.

Question 55: Read the following sentence and answer the question: “Despite the heavy rain, the team decided to continue the match.” What does the word “despite” function as in this sentence?

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Correct Answer: B. Preposition. “Despite” is a preposition showing contrast.

Question 56: Choose the correct spelling of the word.

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Correct Answer: B. Accommodate. The word has two ‘c’s and two ‘m’s.

Question 57: Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word: The detective was ______ to find any clues at the crime scene.

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Correct Answer: A. unable. While the others suggest a lack of ability, “unable” fits best in the context of a specific situation where finding clues was not possible.

Question 58: Identify the type of sentence: “If you study hard, you will succeed.”

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Correct Answer: C. Complex sentence. It contains one independent clause (“you will succeed”) and one dependent clause (“If you study hard”).

Question 59: Which of the following words is a homophone of “there”?

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Correct Answer: A. Their. “There” and “their” sound alike but have different meanings and spellings.

Question 60: Choose the most suitable idiom to complete the sentence: He lost his job, and to add ______, his car broke down.

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Correct Answer: A. insult to injury. This idiom means to further a loss or hardship with mockery or indignity; to worsen an unfavorable situation.

Question 61: Read the passage and answer the question: “The rapid advancement of technology has brought about significant changes in our lives. From communication to transportation, almost every aspect has been transformed. While these advancements offer numerous benefits, they also present certain challenges that need to be addressed.” What is the main idea of this passage?

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Correct Answer: C. Technological advancements have both advantages and disadvantages. The passage discusses the transformative nature of technology and mentions both benefits and challenges.

Question 62: Identify the adverb in the following sentence: “She sings beautifully.”

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Correct Answer: C. beautifully. It modifies the verb “sings,” describing how she sings.

Question 63: Choose the correct form of the verb to complete the sentence: They ______ (play) football when it started raining.

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Correct Answer: D. were playing. This indicates a continuous action in the past that was interrupted.

Question 64: What is the meaning of the phrasal verb “look up”?

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Correct Answer: B. To search for information. For example, to look up a word in a dictionary.

Question 65: Select the word that is an analogy for “doctor is to patient” as “teacher is to ______.”

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Correct Answer: B. student. A doctor cares for a patient, and a teacher educates a student.

Question 66: Find the error in the underlined part of the sentence: “One of the most important reason for the company’s success are its dedicated employees.”

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Correct Answer: C. are. The subject is “One,” which is singular, so the verb should be “is.”

Question 67: Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: She is good ______ playing the piano.

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Correct Answer: A. at. The correct preposition to use with “good” in the context of an activity is “at.”

Question 68: What is the plural form of “criterion”?

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Correct Answer: B. criteria. “Criteria” is the plural form of the Latin word “criterion.”

Question 69: Choose the sentence with the correct sequence of tenses.

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Correct Answer: B. He said that he would come tomorrow. When the reporting verb is in the past tense (“said”), the verb in the reported speech should also generally be in a corresponding past tense form (“would come”).

Question 70: Identify the sentence that is grammatically incorrect.

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Correct Answer: B. The committee have decided to postpone the meeting. Collective nouns like “committee” usually take a singular verb when referring to the group as a whole acting as one unit. It should be “The committee has decided…”

Question 71: What is a synonym for “meticulous”?

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Correct Answer: C. Thorough. Meticulous means showing great attention to detail; very careful and precise.

Question 72: Read the following sentence and identify the type of clause underlined: “The man who is wearing a blue shirt is my brother.”

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Correct Answer: B. Adjective clause. The clause “who is wearing a blue shirt” modifies the noun “man.”

Question 73: Choose the correctly spelt word.

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Correct Answer: A. Perseverance.

Question 74: Fill in the blank with the most appropriate word: The government has implemented new ______ to boost the economy.

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Correct Answer: A. policies. This is the correct plural form of “policy.”

Question 75: Which of the following sentences demonstrates the correct use of a reflexive pronoun?

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Correct Answer: C. They enjoyed themselves at the party. “Themselves” is a reflexive pronoun, referring back to the subject “They.”

Question 76: Which of the following numbers is a perfect number?

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Correct Answer: C. 28. A perfect number is a positive integer that is equal to the sum of its proper positive divisors (excluding the number itself). The proper divisors of 28 are 1, 2, 4, 7, and 14, and their sum is 1 + 2 + 4 + 7 + 14 = 28.

Question 77: The average of the first 10 natural numbers is:

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Correct Answer: B. 5.5.

Explanation:

The first 10 natural numbers are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10.

The sum of the first n natural numbers is given by the formula:

Sum = n(n+1)/2

For n = 10, the sum is:

Sum = 10(10+1)/2 = 10 × 11 / 2 = 110 / 2 = 55.

The average is calculated as:

Average = Sum of numbers / Number of numbers

Average = 55 / 10 = 5.5.

Question 78: The sum of two numbers is 45, and their difference is 7. What is the value of the larger number?

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Correct Answer: B. 26. Let the two numbers be x and y, with x > y. We have x + y = 45 and x – y = 7. Adding the two equations gives 2x = 52, so x = 26.

Question 79: The LCM of two numbers is 120 and their HCF is 10. If one of the numbers is 30, what is the other number?

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Correct Answer: A. 40. For any two numbers, the product of their LCM and HCF is equal to the product of the numbers. So, LCM * HCF = Number 1 * Number 2. 120 * 10 = 30 * Number 2. Number 2 = (120 * 10) / 30 = 1200 / 30 = 40.

Question 80: If a:b = 3:5 and b:c = 4:7, what is the ratio a:b:c?

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Correct Answer: B. 12:20:35. To find the combined ratio, make the ‘b’ values equal. Multiply the first ratio by 4 and the second by 5. a:b = 12:20 and b:c = 20:35. Therefore, a:b:c = 12:20:35.

Question 81: What will be the compound interest on a sum of ₹10000 for 2 years at a rate of 10% per annum, compounded annually?

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Correct Answer: B. ₹2100. Amount after 2 years = P(1 + R/100)^T = 10000(1 + 10/100)^2 = 10000(1.1)^2 = 10000 * 1.21 = ₹12100. Compound Interest = Amount – Principal = ₹12100 – ₹10000 = ₹2100.

Question 82: The average of 5 numbers is 20. If one number is excluded, the average of the remaining 4 numbers becomes 15. What is the excluded number?

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Correct Answer: B. 40. Sum of the initial 5 numbers = Average * Number of terms = 20 * 5 = 100. Sum of the remaining 4 numbers = 15 * 4 = 60. The excluded number = Initial sum – Remaining sum = 100 – 60 = 40.

Question 83: A can do a piece of work in 10 days, and B can do the same work in 15 days. How many days will they take to complete the work if they work together?

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Correct Answer: B. 6 days. A’s one day work = 1/10. B’s one day work = 1/15. (A + B)’s one day work = 1/10 + 1/15 = (3 + 2) / 30 = 5/30 = 1/6. So, they will take 6 days to complete the work together.

Question 84: A train travels at a speed of 72 km/hr. How much distance will it cover in 15 minutes?

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Correct Answer: B. 18 km. Speed = 72 km/hr. Time = 15 minutes = 15/60 hours = 1/4 hour. Distance = Speed * Time = 72 * (1/4) = 18 km.

Question 85: What is the value of 0.36 + 0.045 + 0.8?

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Correct Answer: C. 1.205. 0.360 + 0.045 + 0.800 = 1.205

Question 86: The HCF of 24 and 36 is:

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Correct Answer: C. 12. Factors of 24: 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12, 24. Factors of 36: 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 9, 12, 18, 36. The highest common factor is 12.

Question 87: If x : y = 2 : 3, then what is the value of (2x + y) : (x + 2y)?

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Correct Answer: B. 7:8. Let x = 2k and y = 3k. (2x + y) : (x + 2y) = (2(2k) + 3k) : (2k + 2(3k)) = (4k + 3k) : (2k + 6k) = 7k : 8k = 7:8.

Question 88: After a 20% increase, a number becomes 72. What was the original number?

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Correct Answer: C. 60. Let the original number be x. x + 0.20x = 72 => 1.20x = 72 => x = 72 / 1.20 = 60.

Question 89: A man sells an item at a loss of 10%. If the selling price was ₹180, what was the cost price?

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Correct Answer: C. ₹200. Let the cost price be CP. Selling Price (SP) = CP – 0.10CP = 0.90CP. 0.90CP = 180 => CP = 180 / 0.90 = ₹200.

Question 90: The average weight of 3 boys is 30 kg. If the weight of the first two boys are 25 kg and 35 kg respectively, what is the weight of the third boy?

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Correct Answer: B. 30 kg. Total weight of 3 boys = 30 * 3 = 90 kg. Weight of the first two boys = 25 + 35 = 60 kg. Weight of the third boy = 90 – 60 = 30 kg.

Question 91: If 5 men can complete a work in 12 days, how many days will 10 men take to complete the same work?

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Correct Answer: C. 6 days. Total work = Men * Days = 5 * 12 = 60 man-days. Time taken by 10 men = Total work / Number of men = 60 / 10 = 6 days.

Question 92: A car travels the first half of a journey at 40 km/hr and the second half at 60 km/hr. What is the average speed of the car for the entire journey?

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Correct Answer: B. 48 km/hr. Let the total distance be 2d. Time taken for the first half = d/40. Time taken for the second half = d/60. Total time = d/40 + d/60 = (3d + 2d) / 120 = 5d/120 = d/24. Average speed = Total distance / Total time = 2d / (d/24) = 2d * (24/d) = 48 km/hr.

Question 93: The following table shows the number of students in different classes:

ClassNumber of Students
VI30
VII35
VIII40
IX45
X50

What is the total number of students in all the classes? 

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Correct Answer: B. 200. Total number of students = 30 + 35 + 40 + 45 + 50 = 200.

Question 94: What is the value of (0.2)^3?

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Correct Answer: C. 0.008. (0.2)^3 = 0.2 * 0.2 * 0.2 = 0.008

Question 95: A number is increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%. What is the net percentage change?

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Correct Answer: C. 4% decrease. Let the number be 100. After a 20% increase, it becomes 120. After a 20% decrease, it becomes 120 – (20/100)*120 = 120 – 24 = 96. Net change = 100 – 96 = 4 decrease. Percentage change = (4/100) * 100 = 4% decrease.

Question 96: The ratio of the present ages of A and B is 5:6. After 7 years, the ratio of their ages will be 6:7. What is the present age of A?

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Correct Answer: B. 35 years. Let the present ages of A and B be 5x and 6x respectively. After 7 years, their ages will be 5x + 7 and 6x + 7. (5x + 7) / (6x + 7) = 6/7. 7(5x + 7) = 6(6x + 7) => 35x + 49 = 36x + 42 => x = 7. Present age of A = 5x = 5 * 7 = 35 years.

Question 97: A shopkeeper marks up an article by 50% and then allows a discount of 20%. What is his gain percentage?

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Correct Answer: B. 20%. Let the cost price be ₹100. Marked price = ₹100 + 50% of ₹100 = ₹150. Selling price = ₹150 – 20% of ₹150 = ₹150 – ₹30 = ₹120. Gain = ₹120 – ₹100 = ₹20. Gain percentage = (20/100) * 100 = 20%.

Question 98: A sum of money becomes double itself in 8 years at simple interest. In how many years will it become triple itself?

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Correct Answer: B. 16 years. Let the principal be P. Amount = 2P. Simple Interest (SI) = 2P – P = P. P = (P * R * 8) / 100 => R = 100/8 = 12.5%. Now, for the amount to be 3P, SI = 3P – P = 2P. 2P = (P * 12.5 * T) / 100 => T = (200) / 12.5 = 16 years.

Question 99: A train 200 meters long is running at 36 km/hr. How much time will it take to cross a bridge 300 meters long?

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Correct Answer: D. 50 seconds. Speed of the train = 36 km/hr = 36 * (5/18) = 10 m/s. Total distance to be covered = Length of train + Length of bridge = 200 + 300 = 500 meters. Time taken = Distance / Speed = 500 / 10 = 50 seconds.

Question 100: The average of 6 numbers is 18. If one of the numbers is removed, the average of the remaining 5 numbers becomes 16. What is the value of the removed number?

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Correct Answer: C. 28. Sum of the initial 6 numbers = 18 * 6 = 108. Sum of the remaining 5 numbers = 16 * 5 = 80. The removed number = 108 – 80 = 28.

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